Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 18.06.2025 06:14
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
At least 45 Palestinians killed while waiting for aid trucks in Gaza, health officials say - AP News
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
How can you know if they are your twin flame and not limerence or obsession?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.